Posts by Spike Tassel

163

Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?

by Spike Tassel in

perhaps this article will help you know for yourself: http://www.tetragrammaton.org/godsnameabsent.htm.

Spike Tassel

Here, at last, what I've been looking for, entitled "Is The Name YHWH in the New Testament?":— http://www.equipministry.com/studies/yhwhinnt.htm

163

Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?

by Spike Tassel in

perhaps this article will help you know for yourself: http://www.tetragrammaton.org/godsnameabsent.htm.

Spike Tassel

And here's Eric Francke's take, in his article "The Tetragrammaton and the Christian Scriptures":— http://www.neirr.org/Tetragrammaton.htm

163

Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?

by Spike Tassel in

perhaps this article will help you know for yourself: http://www.tetragrammaton.org/godsnameabsent.htm.

Spike Tassel

Here's an article discussing the issue "Is the New World Translation a Better Bible?", for those who may be interested:— http://www.tetragrammaton.org/english_is_nwt_better.htm

163

Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?

by Spike Tassel in

perhaps this article will help you know for yourself: http://www.tetragrammaton.org/godsnameabsent.htm.

Spike Tassel

Here's what is currently available on Wikipedia's English site regarding the Tetragrammaton in the NT:— http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton_in_the_New_Testament

75

Ok have you ever been asked this question in regards to Isaiah 43:10 ?

by StoneWall in

how could god have always existed since it plainly says near the end of that verse before me there was no god formed?.

here is the quote from the nwt and i also looked it up on numerous other translations and they all used the word before.. .

isaiah 43:10. you are my witnesses, is the utterance of jehovah, even my servant whom i have chosen, in order that you may.

I understand Isaiah 43:10's phrase "there was no God formed" to mean "there was no Source of truth formed". Jehovah is the "Source of truth". Jesus is the "Word of truth". It's that simple. The two (Jehovah and Jesus) are that distinct.

56

Jehovah explained by WT

by PSacramento in

can anyone confirm what i read on another website that the aid to bible undertsanding, 1971 pages 884-885, admit that the term jehovah is a combination of yhwh and the words adonia and elohim and that scholars generally favour "yahweh" as the correct pronunciation?.

is this correct?.

.

Spike Tassel

I don't know the construction of Hebrew, but I suggest that (since Yehovah [simplified Strong's transliteration] and Eloahh [simplified Strong's transliteration] have the same vowels), the vowel sequence e,o,a may have some special grammatical significance in Hebrew. Perhaps that can be explored.

54

Romans 10:13

by PSacramento in

we all know that the passage from paul's letter to romans, romans 10:13 says:.

"all those who call on the name of the lord will be saved".. now, in the nwt they translate that as jehovah instead of the word "lord", because this is a quote from joel 2:32 and in the ot the tetragrammaton yhwh is used, which the nwt translates as "jehovah" (not only the nwt does that, the asv,yng and dby, do it also in regards to joel).. however, of the 16 translations i have seen, all translate that passage in romans as lords and all the commentaries i have read so far, point to view that paul was applying that passage to jesus, being his name that is salvation.. commentaries by james, fausset and brown, by matthew henry and by barnes, to name only 3.. comments?.

Spike Tassel

Each clarifies for himself as he is able based on the synthesis of the evidence available before him.

39

The Last (Lord's) Supper

by PSacramento in

i wanted to ask this question beacuse at the last memorial supper it caught my attention more than it ever did:.

why do some (not just the jw's) believe that judas did not partkae of the lord's supper, the bread and the wine?.

in the synoptic gospels of matt, mark and luke, there is nomention of judas being sent away, indeed in luke jesus says "behold the hand of the betrayer at the table with me".. while in john judas is sent away, he is sent after the supper, though it is not clear if this was the lord's supper since there is no mention of the the partaking of the wine and bread in john.. help would be greatly appreciated.. .

Spike Tassel

passwordprotected's use of the phrase "criticising, misinterpreting, or ignoring" appears to miss the spirit of JWs' statements, I suggest.

154

two witness ruling ?

by KAYTEE in

jw
friends

if a paedophile commits a crime against a junior there has to be, according to the watchtower two witnesses for action to be taken.. if one party of a marriage commits adultery, does there have to be the same, (two witnesses) before action is taken?.

if not........................ kt.

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Spike Tassel

sir82, if both Brother Lecher and Molly admit to details of what happened, then we have the 2 needed witnesses. Whether one/both do so in front of the secular courts, and one/both do so in front of a congregation member, there is clearly enough evidence to proceed with the JC and disfellowship Brother Lecher, and possibly even Molly, depending on the exact circumstances and whether both are baptised.

163

Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?

by Spike Tassel in

perhaps this article will help you know for yourself: http://www.tetragrammaton.org/godsnameabsent.htm.

Spike Tassel

The Christian scriptures actually comprise the 66 books from Genesis to Revelation. Therefore, God's name is properly referred to and included in translations in both the OT and the NT, both directly and indirectly in people's names and in place names. In English, these names are typically derived from the Tetragrammaton and abbreviated variations of it. Any direct use in the NT at this point comes from its use in comparable quotations in the oldest available OT manuscripts. It's as simple as that. This is the faith that I have on this point, and the evidence I use to demonstrate the soundness of it.